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The Last Day


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#1 AggramatosKaiIdiotas

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Posted 24 February 2012 - 06:52 PM

I would like some thoughts concerning the ‘last day’ [τη εσχατη ημερα] and how this relates to the end-times. My specific question comes while trying to take the passage literally and comparing the following verses:

Joh 6:39 And this is the Father’s will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.
Joh 6:40 And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day.
Joh 6:44 No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.
Joh 6:54 Whoso eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.
Joh 11:24 Martha saith unto him, I know that he shall rise again in the resurrection at the last day.
Joh 12:48 He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day.

The first five verses all deal with the resurrection of the just, and this is understood as being the ‘first resurrection’ of Revelation 20. The last verse deals with the judgment of the rejecter of Christ which will ultimately occur after the millennium and after the second resurrection. All verses speak to these events, the resurrection of the just and the judgment of the rejecter on ‘the last day’. There seems to be nothing in the language that would demand looking at ‘the last day’ of John 11:24 as the same ‘last day’ of John 12:48.

#2 henrydmilligan

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Posted 25 February 2012 - 05:05 PM

In my opinion it could be the same day. Jesus here used the term "judge" as opposed to 'resurrect' or 'condem'. In the kingdom, Christ, (with his saints) will be ruling and judging the earth. I Cor 6:2 "Do you not know that the saints will judge the earth?". It seems to me that Christ in John 12 is explaining why he was not currently "Ruling with a rod of iron" as the Christ was prophesied to. Thats what i see about that passage, but i could be wrong and it be refering to the 2nd resurection.

I've always wondered though, could this be a veiled reference to the "last day(millenium)" of chilliasm?

I like this question and while we are on it i'll ask another questing about the same (or similar) topic.

In Luke 23:43 Jesus says to the thief on the cross, "today you will be with me in paradise." We know that in that literal 24 hour day Jesus was not in paradise nor was the thief. Jesus was in Hades.

Anybody's opinion or expertise would be appreciated. :)

#3 Tim

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Posted 08 March 2012 - 10:49 AM

I am inclined to think that the term "the last day" in all of these passages refers to the whole 7th millennium (the Millennial Sabbath). Peter refers to this day "dawning" at the coming of Christ (2 Pet. 1:19).

http://www.oasischri...ennial_week.pdf

Tim

#4 Mike

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Posted 03 June 2012 - 11:57 AM

In the verses which seem to be referring to the first resurrection, Ch 6 vs 39, 40, 44, & 54 and Ch 11: 24, the text says "at" the last day. But in 12:48 where it is talking of the second resurrection it says "in" the last day. It seems to me that "at" the last day" would be referring to the onset of that day and "in" the last day" would happen sometime during the day. If the "day" is the 7th millenial day as Pastor Tim suggested then the second resurrection could happen at the end of the day, which would satisfy the demand of the text to be "in" that day and still reconcile with the rest of scripture as far as the first and second resurrection are concerned.

Mike




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